Well I want to know.

Does pedophilia have to be exclusive or a primary/preference sexuality to be considered so? What if you are panfluid or whatever in terms of age?
Is there any psychology behind being limitless towards any age (over at least 8 and under 90) but with no preference in sexuality? I want to know

>>1
Medically speaking it has to be nigh exclusive
The issue with not making it exclusive is that most human beings show “signs of arousal” to “præpubertal stimulus” but that's in the same bucket as that most human beings show “signs of arousal” to both male and female stimulus.

What the mind responds to and what the body responds to are two very different things — quite a bit of research even shows that most human beings show “signs of arousal” when being shown two chimpanzees having sex.